Monday 11 June 2012

NTPC Exam


What is NTPC?
Setup in 1975, NTPC is the largest power company in India with 19.1% total installed capacity of the country (as on 31 Mar 2008). It contributed 28.50% of the total power generation of the country during 2007-08. NTPC is among the largest five companies in India in terms of market capitalization and ranks 411th in Forbes list of World’s 2000 Largest Companies for the year 2007. And it ranked No. 1 in Best Workplaces for Large Organizations and eighth overall in 2008 by Great Places to Work in collaboration with the Economic Times

Pattern of NTPC written test:
NTPC written test consists of two papers: Aptitude & Technical. While the questions of Aptitude test is common, questions of the Technical test would depend on which among the six disciplines (Electrical, Mechanical, Civil, Control & Instrumentation, Human Resources & Finance) you belong to.
There are 55 questions in Technical test & 35 in Aptitude – so a total of 90 multiple-choice questions, which needs to be answered in 2 hours. Thus you have 1 min. 20 seconds aprox. to answer each question – the questions as such are not difficult and therefore your main focus would be to answer the questions correctly.
Notes of caution: There is negative marking: 1/4th mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. So if you make a guess, make it wisely!
For Aptitude test the questions asked are of type: Synonyms, Antonyms, Comprehension passages, Word analogies, Fill in the sentences with the most suitable word, Aptitude problem solving skills (train probs, loss profit sums, ratios, etc.).

Age Eligibility:
For EET:Maximum 27 years as on 01.01.2010 i.e. candidates born before 01.01.83 is not eligible. This age limit is relaxed by two years for the candidates with Post graduation degree.
For ET-HR & ET-Fin: Maximum 29 years as on 01.01.2010 i.e. candidates born before 01.01.81 is not eligible.
NTPC Syllabus for Executive Trainee- Discipline: ELECTRICAL And Electronics ENGINEERING:

Electric Circuits and Fields:Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis, resonance, basic filter concepts; ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s and Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits; Gauss Theorem, electric field and potential due to point, line, plane and spherical charge distributions; Ampere’s and Biot-Savart’s laws; inductance; dielectrics; capacitance.

Signals and Systems: Representation of continuous and discrete-time signals; shifting and scaling operations; linear, time-invariant and causal systems; Fourier series representation of continuous periodic signals; sampling theorem; Fourier, Laplace and Z transforms.

Electrical Machines: Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram, tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel operation; auto-transformer; energy conversion principles; DC machines - types, windings, generator characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors; three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance, regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications; servo and stepper motors.

Power Systems: Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models and performance; cable performance, insulation; corona and radio interference; distribution systems; per-unit quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles of over-current, differential and distance protection; solid state relays and digital protection; circuit breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion; HVDC transmission and FACTS concepts. Numeric Relays.

Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Niquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag, lead and lead-lag compensation; state space model; state transition matrix, controllability and observability.

Electrical and Electronic Measurements: Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power factor; instrument transformers; digital voltmeters and multimeters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Q-meters; oscilloscopes; error analysis.

Analog and Digital Electronics: Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers - biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers; operational amplifiers - characteristics and applications; simple active filters; VCOs and timers; combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; multi-vibrators; sample and hold circuits; A/D and D/A converters; 8-bit / 16-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.

Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation; triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basis concepts of adjustable speed dc and ac drives. Variable speed control of AC machines.

Syllabus for NTPC Executive Aptitude Test:

Executive Aptitude Test is common to all disciplines. It will be consist of 50 objective type questions on:
01. Vocabulary
02. Verbal comprehension
03. Quantitative aptitude
04. Reasoning ability to determine data sufficiency
05. Interpretation of graphs/ charts/ tables
06. Numerical ability etc.

BEL(Bharat Electronics Limited)



What is BEL?
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) was set up at Bangalore, India, by the Government of India under the Ministry of  Defence in 1954 to meet the specialized electronic needs of the Indian defence services. Over the years, it has grown into a multi-product, multi-technology, multi-unit company serving the needs of customers in diverse fields in India and abroad . BEL is among an elite group of public sector undertakings which have been conferred the Navratna status by the Government of India. During 2008-09, BEL recorded a turnover of Rs.4624 crores.

                 This is a company which deals with a wide spectrum of products ranging from Radars to Solar based solutions. BEL goes much beyond the defence products they are famous for, they have made inroads into civilian products as well.Ranked among the top PSUs of the country, which has continuously made profits year after year.With massive infrastructure in the form of nine ISO certified manufacturing plants based on the state-of-the-art technology and many regional offices in all the major cities of the country as well as in New York and Singapore, BEL beckons the best brains of the country to be onboard - come , and be a part of us!!.

ELIGIBILITY - First class in Engineering Degree from AICTE approved Colleges / recognised Universities in Electronics / Electronics & Communication / Electronics & Telecommunication / Communication / Telecommunication / Mechanical / Computer Science / Computer Science and Engineering/Civil Engineering/Chemical Engineering. Candidates with AMIE / GIETE in the above specializations should have secured first class.
Age Limit
The maximum age limit for General candidates as on 01.04.2011 will be 25 years.
Upper age limit is relaxable by 5 years for SC/ST candidates and 3 years for OBC candidates.
In respect of PWD candidates upper age limit is relaxable by 5 years. In respect of PWD candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC category, the age relaxation admissible will be over and above the relaxation admissible for candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC.
.Relaxation will be extended as per Govt. guidelines in respect of Ex-Serviceman.

BEL Exam Pattern And Syllabus
The company is known to employ the best engineering talents of India.Almost every year in June/July BEL (Bharat Electronics Limited) conducts recruitment exam for graduate engineers (freshers) to recruit about 150 odd engineers.

BEL in its graduate engineer exam notification has not said much about the pattern of the written exam, except that the selection process would consist of a written test followed by interview.
So I had to search on the net for the pattern of written exam of previous years and I could find that the BEL written exam consist of a total 150 marks containing following two sections:
1.Aptitude section:consist of 30 questions each weighing 1 mark. Questions on passage comprehension, grammar, data interpretation & logical reasoning is asked.
2.Technical section:consist of 120 questions each weighing 1 mark. Subject specific (Electronics, Mechanical or Computer Science) questions are asked.You have to answer the 150 question, 150 marks paper in 2-n-half hour.There is negative marking of -0.25 for each wrong answer.and hence you should be cautious in making guesses.

There is a written test of 2.5 hours. The test consists of 30 questions based on aptitude maths and technical.. Apart from this there is a passage consisting of 3 questions. There are data interpretation questions, logical reasoning questions and questions on general knowledge.
The math questions are generally asked from topics like compound interest and height and distance. These questions can be really tricky.
The technical part consists of questions which aim to test the fundamental knowledge you have in subjects like solid state and electronics. Questions are there from Fourier transform, electrical, circuit theory, network theorems, filters, resistors connections etc.
There can be questions from control systems. Digital signal processing forms a major portion from where questions generally come. Some questions are from microprocessors.

following is the maths syllabus:
Probability: Conditional Probability; Mean, Median, Mode and Standard Deviation; Random Variables; Distributions; uniform, normal, exponential, Poisson, Binomial.
Set Theory & Algebra: Sets; Relations; Functions; Groups; Partial Orders; Lattice; Boolean Algebra.
Combinatorics: Permutations; Combinations; Counting; Summation; generating functions; recurrence relations; asymptotics.
Graph Theory: Connectivity; spanning trees; Cut vertices & edges; covering; matching; independent sets; Colouring; Planarity; Isomorphism.
Linear Algebra: Algebra of matrices, determinants, systems of linear equations, Eigen values and Eigen vectors.
Numerical Methods: LU decomposition for systems of linear equations; numerical solutions of non-linear algebraic equations by Secant, Bisection and Newton-Raphson Methods; Numerical integration by trapezoidal and Simpson’s rules.
Calculus: Limit, Continuity & differentiability, Mean value Theorems, Theorems of integral calculus, evaluation of definite & improper integrals, Partial derivatives, Total derivatives, maxima & minima.
this consists of 40% of the paper,rest g.k,aptitude.

here i am giving the syllabus of electronics and communication for BEl exam.

1. Antennas: Antenna lenths, types(vhf,uhf,yogi-gudi n other) 

2. Satellites: Basics on Satillites, Satillite positions, Distance problems,Geo-synchronous Satillites

3. Rader : Basics on Raders, Tracking Raders, FW-CM Raders, MTI Raders

4. Microprocessors: 80286, Data n Adders lines(1-2 qns)

5. Networks : Resonance Frequency, Y-Delta problems, Nodal n Mesh Analysis,RLC n/w, power Calculations(p=v^2/R=I^2R=VI)

6. Control Systems :Transfer Function, Routh-Hurwitz Crierion

7. Op-amps :R and C connected op-amp o/p

8. Timers: IC(4000,4001,7485)

9. Capacitance n Inductance Formulas and its problems,Conductivity

10. Basic Electronics: p-n junction, FET, Oscillators

11. Electromagnitics : m(mue),mr, Maxwell’s equation, J= (Sigma)*E,Divergence, Wave guides.

12. 1-5 question from Basics of normal operating systems(windows,unix,win98) n Control Networking 

13. Digital Electronics : Flip-flops(j-k,T,D), Logic Gates 

14.Communications :  Detectors,S/N ratio, 
a) Pulse Analog :
PAM :P ulse Amplitude Modulation
PWM :P ulse Width Modulation
PPM : Pulse Position Modulation 
b) Pulse Digital :
PCM : Pulse Code Modulation

Download:

BEL Previous year Question paper 2010
BEL Placement paper

BHEL(Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited)


What is BHEL?
Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), established in 1953, is the largest engineering and manufacturing enterprise in India in the energy-related/infrastructure sector and is also one of leading power generation equipment manufacturers in the world. The company has been earning profits continuously since 1971-72 and is paying dividends since 1976-77.
                        BHEL manufactures over 180 products under 30 major product groups and caters to core sectors of the Indian Economy viz., Power Generation & Transmission, Industry, Transportation, Telecommunication, Renewable Energy, etc. The wide network of BHEL consists of 14 manufacturing divisions, four Power Sector regional centres, over 100 project sites, eight service centres and 18 regional offices.The greatest strength of BHEL is its highly skilled and committed workforce of 46,748  employees.
BHEL is on a rapid expansion mode - it plans to become a Rs. 45,000 crore company by 2011-12 and double that amount by 2016-17. More about BHEL please visit http://www.bhel.com

Eligibilities for BHEL
Academic Eligibilities for BHEL Engineer Trainee: Minimum 65 % marks (or equivalent CGPA) in aggregate in Graduate Engineering in Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics Discipline from a recognized institute.
Age Limit: as on 01.08.2011,Maximum 27 years for Graduate Engineers, 29 years for PG Engineers or Business Admn/Management.

BHEL Engineer Trainee vacancies:
As per BHEL Job Notification for the year 2011-2012, there are a total of 1000 ET vacancies with following break-up of discipline-wise vacancies: Mechanical : 700, Electrical : 200, Electronics : 100.
Category-wise vacancies for BHEL ET positions are as below:Gen : 498 , SC : 151 , ST : 90 , OBC: 261.


BHEL Exam Pattern
The selection process of BHEL for Engineer Trainee consists of a written test, followed by a personal interview. Following the written test, almost 1800 candidates are supposed to be called and one out of every three of them is expected to get the BHEL JOB!
BHEL exam consists of 240 Objective questions, each of 1 mark, to be answered in 2-n-half hour,Thus you have just over 35 seconds to answer each question.Speed is therefore a criteria in doing well in the BHEL written test.But at the same time, you need to be accurate as well in answering these BHEL questions correctly – as there are 0.2 negative marks for each wrong answer.
There are two sections in BHEL written test:
1.Aptitude Test: Consists of questions from the areas of Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage & General Awareness.
2.Technical test:Consists of two parts: General engineering questions & questions specific to your engineering discipline.
Although BHEL notification has not specified anything about how many questions would be set in each section, data from previous exams shows that 120 questions are set in each of these two sections.

BHEL Syllabus:
BHEL has not prescribed any syllabus for the written test. However as per feedback from previous exams, for the BHEL Technical test, you can follow the syllabus for the GATE exam. Likewise however, for BHEL Aptitude test, no specific exam syllabus can be prescribed and you have to rely on the Aptitude test question pattern of other competitive exams.
To get more Info plz  Click This to Download .

Download:

BHEL Placement Papers For Mechanical Stream

BHEL Paper For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS (Study Online)

BHEL Paper For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS

  1. For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS with answers(bolded words)
  2. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms
  3. a.) Resistanceb.) Reactancec.) Impedanced.) None

  4. Oscillator crystal are made of –
    a.) Silicon
    b.) Germanium
    c.) Quartz
    d.) None
  5. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-a. )Airb. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion

    d.) Steel

  6. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
    a.)
    b.) C

    c.) 2C
    d.) 4C

  7. A superconductor is a –
    a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
    b.) A conductor having zero resistance
    c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
    d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

  8. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
    a) 8.05 pF
    b) 10.05pF
    c.) 16.01pF
    d.) 20.01pF

  9. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
    a.) Inductance

    b.) Capacitance
    c.) Resistance
    d.) None

  10. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
    a.) Resistance in the line
    b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
    c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
    d.) None


  11. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
    a.) Class ‘A’
    b.) Class ‘b’
    c.) Class ‘C’
    d.) None

  12. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
    a.) High positive

    b.) High negative
    c.) Low positive
    d.) Zero

  13. The input gate current of a FET is –
    a.) a few microamperes
    b.) negligibly small
    c.) a few milliamperes
    d.) a few amperes


  14. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –


    a.) 25 mA

    b.) 40 mA

    c.) 25/16 mA

    d.) 10 mA

  15. A step recovery diode –
    a.) has on extremely short recovery time

    b.) conducts equally well in both directions
    c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
    d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

  16. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-
    a.) 0.1V

    b.) 5V
    c.) 10V
    d) V

  17. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
    a.) source
    b.) drain
    c.) gate

    d.) none
  18. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –a.) Triacb.) UJT c.) Diac

    d.) SCR

  19. A typical optical fibre has –
    a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
    b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
    c.) Both a and b

    d.) None

  20. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
    a.) 9
    b.) 11
    c.) 10
    d.) 21

  21. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be – a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9

    c.) 7.5 + j 2.5

    d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
  22. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load – a.) 5 b.) 6.5

    c.) 8


    d.) 9
  23. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-a.) Z0 cot h Ölb.) Z0 cot Öl c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l


    d.) Z0 tan Öl
  24. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –a.) lb.) l/4 c.) l/2

    d.) l/8
  25. A relatively permanent information is stored in
    a. ) ROM
    b.) RAM

    c.) PROM
    d.) Volatile memory
  26. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to – b.) RC

    c.) 2RC

    d.) 4RC
  27. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be – a.) cos50tA b.) 2A


    c.) 2cos100tA

    d.) 2sin50tA
  28. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively – a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W


    c.) 9W, 6W and 9W

    d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
  29. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –

    d.) indeterminate
  30. Joule/coulomb is the unit of – a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c .) Charge


    d.) None of the above
  31. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
    a.) Are parallel to each other
    b.)Are one and same
    c.) Cut each other orthogonally
    d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle
  32. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line


  33. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
    a.) In the +x direction
    b.) In the –x direction
    c. ) In the +y direction
    d.) In the –y direction

  34. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
    a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
    b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation

    c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
    d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
  35. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
    a.) TM01

    b.)TE10
    c.) TM112
    d.)TE11
  36. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –

  37. . When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
    a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value

    b.)Remain the same
    c. )Increase
    d.)Decrease to zero
  38. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
    a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
    b.)An inductance at the load
    c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load

    d.)none of the above
  39. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –a.) less accurateb.) more accurate c.) equally accurate

    d.) none.
  40. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –a.) VTVMb.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter


    d.) Digital multimeter
  41. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5. c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero

    d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
  42. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –a.) 11.1b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3

    d.) 66.3
  43. The Q of a radio coil –a.) is independent of frequencyb.) increases monotonically as frequency increases c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases

    d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
  44. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –a.) 0.5b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5

    d.) 1.75
  45. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation) c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)


    d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

  46. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
    a.) -2000C to 5000C
    b.) 00C to 5000C

    c.) 5000C to 12000C
    d.) 12000C to 25000C

  47. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

    a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
    b.) Silicon (Si)
    c.) Copper (Cu)
    d.) Germanium (Ge)

  48. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
    a.) 1
    b.) 2
    c.) 3

    d.) 4

  49. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
    a. b.
    c. d.
  50. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

    a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction

    b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction

    c.) step up device

    d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device
    In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.

    S is closed at t = 0 the

    maximum value of current and the

    time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

    a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
  51. b.) 50 A, 30 mSc.) 100 A, 62.828 mSd.) 400 A, 31.414 mS
  52. 50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
    a.) 200 A

    b.) 170.7 A

    c.) 141.4 A

    d.) 70.7 A
  53. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

    a.) 5850 KHZ
    b.)585 KHZ
    c.) 5850 HZ
    d.)585HZ
  54. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
    a). Higher current carrying
    b.)Lower ripple factor
    c.) Higher efficiency

    d.)Lower peak increase voltage require
  55. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
    a.) If the conduction angle decrease
    b).If the conduction angle increase
    c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
    d.)None of the above
  56. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is- a.)75b.)76 c.)75/76


    d.)-75
  57. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
    a.) It is biased almost to saturation
    b.)Its quiescent current is low
    c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
    d.)It is biased well below cut off
  58. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
    a.) Direct coupling

    b.)Impedance coupling
    c.) R C coupling
    d.)Transformer coupling
  59. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
    a.) Current series feedback
    b.)Current shunt feedback

    c.) Voltage series feedback
    d.)Voltage shunt feedback
  60. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

  61. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –a.) PISO shift registerb.) SOIP shift register c.) SIPO shift register

    d.) POIS shift register
  62. PROMs are used to store-a.) bulk informationb.) information to be accessed rarely c.) sequence information

    d.) relatively permanent information
  63. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-a.) Output bit combinationb.) analog output voltage c.) input bit combination

    d.) none of the above
  64. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –a.) s = 0, R = 0b.) s = 1, R = 1 c.) s = 0, R = 1

    d.) s = 1, R = 0
  65. Name the fastest logic family-a) TTLb.) RTL c.) DCTL

    d.) ECL
  66. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is – a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB c.) A + AB = A

    d.) None of the above
  67. In the given fig find radix of the system –
    a.) 2


    b.) 4

    c.) 6

    d.) 8
  68. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –a.) increase the transmission capacityb) improve noice performance c.) incorporate error control coding

    d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
  69. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is- a.) b.) 3


    c.) 4

    d.) 5
  70. Identify the example of open-loop system-a.) A windscreen wiperb.) Aqualung c.) Respiratory system of an animal

    d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
  71. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)2. (e-2t +5) (u(t)) 3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)


    4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)

    Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-

    a.) 1&3

    b.) 1&4

    c.) 2&4

    d.) 1&4
  72. A system is described by
    To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.



    Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-

    a.) Only V1

    b.) Only V2



    c.) Both V1 and V2




    d.) Neither V1 nor v2
  73. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function



  74. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-


  75. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions. 3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.

    4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    Codes

    a.) 1 and 4

    b.) 2 and 3

    c.) 1 and 3

    d.) 2 and 4
  76. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds isa.) 150 samples per second b.) 200 samples per second


    c.) 300 samples per second

    d.) 350 samples per second
  77. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.a.) 34 and 106b.) 52. And 88 c.) 106 and 142

    d.) 34 and 142
  78. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –a.) Pulse radarb.) Tracking radar c.) MTI radar

    d.) Mono pulse radar
  79. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed


    d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
  80. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-a.) Compression of the modulating signalb.) Expansion of the modulating signal

    c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
  81. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-a.) reflection from the ionosphereb.) line of sight mode

    c) reflection from the groundd.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
  82. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector toa.) increase the gain of the systemb). increase the bandwidth of the system

    c.) reduce the size of the main reflectord.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
  83. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body. c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid

    d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
  84. Circuit in the given figure represents. – a.) an astable multivibrator b.) A monostable multivibrator

    c.) Voltage controlled oscillator

    d.) Ramp generator
  85. . . D = r is-a.) Maxwell’s 1st equationb.) Maxwell’s II equation c.) Maxwell’s III equation


    d.) Maxwell’s IV equation
  86. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-a.) TM00b.) TM01

    c.) Tm10



    d.) TM11

  87. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.a). port 4b). port 3 c.) port 2.

    d.) port 3 & 4.


  88. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
    a.) Barometer are used
    b.) Thermisters are used

    c.) Calorimetric technique
    d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used

  89. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
    a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
    b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time

    c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
    d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact

  90. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
    a.) Hown antennas
    b.) Bioconical antennas
    c.) helical antenna

    d. )Discone

  91. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
    a.)
    b. )
    c.)
    d.)


  92. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
    a.) 4
    b.) 6
    c.) 8
    c.) 10

  93. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
    a.) 2
    b.) 3

    c.) 4
    d.) 5

  94. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
    a.) z = 0, cy = 0
    b.) z = 0, cy = 1
    c.) z = 1, cy = 0
    d.) z = 1, cy = 1

  95. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
    a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
    b.) when INTA signal is low.
    c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
    d.) none of above.

  96. Microprogramming is a technique
    a.) for programming the microprocessor

    b.) for writing small programs efficiently
    c.) for programming the control steps of computer

    d.) for programming o/p / i/p
  97. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help ofa.) interpreterb.) compiler c.) operating

    d.) system
  98. (10110011)2 = (?)8a.) 253b.) 263 c.) 273


    d.) 283
  99. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-a.) NANDb.) NOR c.) AND

    d.) NOPE.
  100. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-a.) ANDb.) OR c.) NAND

    d.) X-OR
  101. A symbol of JK flip flop is-


  102. A demultiplener-a.) has multiple i/p and single o/pb.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p

    d.) has single i/p and single o/p
  103. . Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?a.) fascinationb.) open approval. c.) Indulgent tolerance.

    d.) Scornful.
  104. What type of sentence is this ?Hurray! We won the matcha.) Exclamatory b.) assertive


    c.) Negative

    d.) Affirmative
  105. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’a.) hourb.) M. A. c.) Umbrella

    d.) Man
  106. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –a.) freshlyb.) freshen c.) fresheners

    d.) fresh itself
  107. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –a.) Simileb.) inversion c.) onomatopoeia


    d.) irony
  108. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-a.) Pentafour softwareb) Infosys c.) IBM

    d.) Wipro
  109. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussainb.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar

    d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
  110. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-a.) 42nd

    b.) 43rd c.) 40th


    d.) 45th
  111. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-a.) T. Venkat Naidub.) K. Hari Harh c.) N. Rengaswany

    d.) M. Mudliar
  112. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-a.) 311b.) 329 c.) 356

    d.) 365
  113. Ostrich is a-a.) Running birdb.) Flying bird c) Swimming bird


    d.) Migratory bird
  114. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-a.) Oxygenb.) Nitrogen c.) Ozone

    d.) Carbon-dioxide
  115. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-a.) Riceb.) groundnut c.) Sugarcane

    d.) gram
  116. The function of World Bank is to-a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economyb.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments

    d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
  117. Speed of sound is maximum in-a. )Waterb.) Air c.) Steel


    d.) Vacuum
  118. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-a.) Subhash Chandra Boseb.) Jawaharlal Nehru c.) Lajpat Rai

    d.) Bhagat Singh
  119. Durand cup is associated with-a.) Hockeyb.) Tennis c.) Football

    d.) Badminton
  120. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.a.) 1908b.) 1910 c.) 1913


    d.) 1914
  121. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-a.) May 18, 1975b.) May 20, 1974 c) May 17, 1974

    d.) May 17, 1974
  122. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-a.) Asian development Bankb.) World Bank c.) Swiss Bank

    d.) Reserve Bank of India